SSC CGL 2018 DETAILED NOTIFICATION

Closing Date:                                                         04.06.2018

Date of Computer Based Examination (Tier-I):       25.07.2018-20.08.2018

Date of Tier-II:                                                       To be notified later

Date of Tier-III (Descriptive):                                 To be notified later

Date of Tier-IV (Skill test):                                     To be notified later

SSC Notifies the Recruitment Notification under Combined Graduate Level Exam 2017 for the posts of Inspector / Sub Inspector / Assistant Audit Officer / Assistant Accounts Officer / Assistant Section Officer / Assistant / Auditors / Tax Assistants / Junior Statistical Officer in the departments of CAG / CSS / IB / Railways / MEA / AFHQ / Ministries CBDT /CBEC / CBI / Narcotics / Vigilance / NIA / Department of Posts/ Statistical Department etc.

 

SSC CGL Eligibility:

Age:  Age limit will be reckoned as on 1st August, 2018:

For Post for which age limit is 20-27 years He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1991 and not later than 01.08.1998
For Post for which age limit is 18-27 years He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1991 and not later than 01.08.2000
For Post for which age limit is 20-30 years He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1988 and not later than 01.08.1998
For Post for which age limit is up to 30 years He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1988 and not later than 01.08.2000
For Post for which age limit is up to 32 years He/ she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1986 and not later than 01.08.2000

Qualification: Essential Educational Qualifications as on 1st August, 2018

 

Assistant Audit Officer/Assistant Accounts Officer:

(a) Essential Qualifications: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or Institute

(b) Desirable Qualifications: Chartered Accountant or cost & Management Accountant or Company Secretary or Masters in Commerce or Masters in Business Studies or Masters in Business Administration (Finance) or Masters in Business Economics.

Note-I: During the period of probation direct recruits shall have to qualify the “Subordinate Audit Service Examination” in respective branches for confirmation and regular appointment as Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.

 

Junior Statistical Officer:

Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a recognized University or Institute with at least 60% Marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level:

or

Bachelor’s Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level.

All other Posts: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University or equivalent.

The candidates appearing in the final year of their graduation can also apply, however they must possess Essential qualification on or before 01.08.2018.

Exam Fee:  Rs 100 only. (No fee for SC/ST/Ex. Servicemen/Women / PH)

 

SSC CGL 2018 Selection Process

The Examination will be conducted in four tiers as indicated below:

Tier –I Computer Based Examination
Tier –II Computer Based Examination
Tier –III Pen and Paper Mode (Descriptive paper)
Tier-IV Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test (wherever applicable)/ Document Verification

The Commission reserves the right to make changes in the scheme of examination.

Marks scored by candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II examinations, if conducted in multiple shifts, will be normalized and such normalized scores will be treated as final and will be used for qualifying the candidates to next stage of examination and to determine final merit.

Scheme of SSC CGL Tier-I Examination

Exam is of 60 Minutes duration and contains 100 objective type questions carrying 200 marks with each question carrying 2 Marks. There will be negative marks for the wrong answers with 1/4th marks being deducted for wrong answers.

Subject Questions Marks
Maths 25 50
Reasoning 25 50
English 25 50
GS 25 50
Total 100 200

 

Scheme of SSC CGL Tier-II Examination:

Test Paper No. of Questions Marks Time
Paper I Quantitative Abilities 100 200 120min
Paper II English Language & Comprehension 200 200 120min
Paper III Statistics 100 200 120min
Paper IV General Studies

(Finance & Economics)

100 200 120min

Note: 

  1. Note-I: In Tier-I, there will be negative marking of 0.50 for each wrong answer.
  2. Note-II: In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong answer in Paper-II (English Language and Comprehension) and of 0.50 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I, Paper-III and Paper-IV.
  3. Note-III: In Tier-II, Paper-I and Paper-II are compulsory for all the posts.
  4. Note-IV: In Tier-II, Paper-III will be for only those candidates who apply for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) and who are shortlisted in Tier-I for this Post/ Paper.
  5. Note-V: In Tier-II, Paper-IV will be for only those candidates who are shortlisted in Tier-I for Paper-IV i.e. for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.

Scheme of SSC CGL Tier-III Examination:

Mode of Examination Scheme of Examination Maximum Marks Time Allowed
Pen and Paper mode Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi (Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.) 100 60 Minutes

 

SSC CGL CUT OFF 2017 (TIER-I)

SC ST OBC Ex.S OH HH VH UR Total
Cut – Off Marks 98 88.5 110 69 84.5 38 89.5 126.5
Candidates Available 32239 15368 74604 7201 2684 1796 559 55387 1,89,838

 

SSC CGL CUT OFF 2016 TIER-I + TIER-II +TIER-III)

Category SC ST OBC OH HH UR Total
Cut – Off Marks 454.00 427.00 493.75 411.00 264.00 536.00
Candidates Available 707 333 1775 78 74 1829* 4796

 

How to approach the SSC CGL 2018 exam?

 

As per the latest notification of SSC CGL 2018, there are not many changes in the

Pattern of both Examinations except that Normalization will be done in the Tier-I exam from now on.

The total time you get for solving the paper is 60 minutes. There is no sectional time limit so you have the liberty to attempt various sections in any order you want. Now let’s go through each section individually and device a strategy that can help you to ace this exam

 

Quantitative Aptitude: It is considered to be the most difficult and time-consuming part of the exam. But with proper practice, good marks can be scored. So, utilize the time & make yourself expert in at least some of the areas of quant section. Simplification, interest, percentages, ratio and proportion and age-problems are easy and scoring so spend more time with these topics. Profit and loss, number series, mensuration, number systems, speed and distance, etc. are scoring topics but take more time to solve. In 2017, questions were also asked from Co-ordinate geometry. So, don’t leave any topic. Be thorough with all the chapters mentioned in the syllabus. Learn all the important formulas by heart.

While preparing for Quantitative Aptitude. Solve as many different types of questions and topics as you can to know your strong and weak areas.

Quant Tier-I

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018)
Simplification 0-1
Interest 1 1 (E) 2-3
Percentage 2 1 (M) 1
Ratio & proportion 0+1 (E) 1-2
Average 1 (0-1) 1-2
Speed, time 3 1 (E) 1-2
Profit & Loss 2 2 (M) 2-3
Number series 0-1
Mensuration 1-2 2 (M) 2-3
D.I 5 5 (E) 5
Mixture & allegation 0-1 (M) 0-1
Algebra 2-4 4-5 (M) 3-4
Geometry 3-4 2 (M) 2-3
Trigonometry 1-2 2-3 (M) 2-3
Time and work 1-2 1 (M) 1

 

 

Quant-Tier-II

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018)
Number system 10 6-7 7-8
Simplification 10 2
Percentage 4-5 3-4 3-5
Profit and loss 8-9 9-10 10-12
SI and CI 3-4 4-5 3-5
Average 5-6 3-4 3-4
Mixture & allegation 2-3 2-3 2-3
Ratio & proportion 2-4 4-5 3-5
Time/speed/distance 4-6 4-5 5-6
Time & work 4-6 4-5 3-5
Geometry 12-13 7-8 8-10
Mensuration 10-13 10-12 10-12
Trigonometry 8-11 6-7 7-8
Data interpretation 5 5 5
Algebra 5 10-11 10-12

 

Reasoning: Solving General Intelligence (GI) questions can be very tricky unless you have sufficient practice. Try to solving as many practice papers, as you can. As you go on practicing, you will gradually devise tricks of your own to tackle GI questions. Topics like Puzzles, analogy, coding-decoding, series, figure-based questions, etc. are very scoring. Start with these and move on to more versatile questions. Also, practice consistently. Furthermore, non-verbal reasoning topics like image assembling, figure-counting, etc. require you to use visual imagination. Do not skip or ignore these questions because they seem time-consuming to you. Solving them is the best way to make them less time-consuming.

While practicing, make your aim to attempt at least 20-22 questions in 20 minutes with reasonable accuracy. –

Reasoning

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018)
Odd one out (2-3) 2 (M) 3 (E) 2-3
Analogy 1 (E) 3 (E) 1-2
Coding decoding 2 (M) 0-2
Puzzle & statement conclusion 3-5 (E-M) 1 (M) 2-3
Matrix 1 (E) 1 (E) 1
Word formation 2 (M) 0-1
Directions 1 (M) 0-1 (E) 1
Blood relation 2 (E-M) 1 (M) 1
Missing number (Matrix) 1-2 (M) 2 (E) 2
Non-verbal 2-3 (E) 3-4 (M) 3-4
Syllogism 1 (E) 2 (E) 1
Logical order (Dictionary) 1 (E) 1
Series (alpha numeric/number) 1 (E) 1

 

General Awareness: General awareness (GA) is the most scoring section of the exam. If you prepare this section properly, it will not take more than 10 minutes of your time during the exam. You can utilize the time you save here for doing calculations in Quantitative Aptitude. The exam usually has more questions from static GK than Current Affairs. Therefore, focus more on static GK as well as stay in touch with Current Affairs.

Your order of priority for the subjects should be

Science Polity  History- Geography  Economy  Miscellaneous

General awareness

Topic 2017 2017 Expected (2018)
Economics 2 (M) 3 (M) 2-3
Current affairs 4-5 (E-M) 4-5 (E-M) 5-6
Science (Mainly Biology) 6-8 (M) 5-7 (M) 7-8
Polity 3-4 (M) 3-4 (E) 3-4
History 3-4 (E) 4-6 (E-M) 4-5
Geography 2-4 (M) 1-3 (M) 2-3
Misc (books & authors conventions and etc) 2 2-3 1-2

 

English Language: There are three important topics that you should prepare very well for English. These are vocabulary, grammar and comprehension. If you achieve proficiency in vocabulary and grammar, you will score good marks. After this, all you need is to work on comprehension. The pattern and questions in this exam often get repeated. Therefore, a thorough preparation can help you wrap up this entire section within 10 minutes in the exam.

Comprehension – Practice passages daily. The trick is to read the questions before you read the passage, as then while reading the passage you will know exactly what you are looking for.

Vocabulary – Try to read as much as you can. Whenever you come across new words, make a list. Also, go through all the questions asked in previous years.

Grammar – Just like vocabulary, your grammar will also improve if you read more sincerely. Try as many questions as you can on Error Spotting, Phrase Replacement and Fill in the Blanks

English

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018)
Phrases or idioms 2-3 (M) 1-2 1-2
Direct and indirect 1-2 1-2
Spelling 1-2 2 2
Active and passive 1 1-2
Para jumbles 2 0-1
Antonyms & synonyms 3-4 (E-M) 3-5 4-5
Sentence improvements 1-3 (E) 2-3 3-4
Error spotting 3 (E) 2-3 3-4
Cloze test 2-5 2-3
Comprehension 5 (E) 3-5 4-5
One word substitution 2-3 (M) 2 2

 

Tier-II

English

Topic 2016 2017 Expected (2018)
Para jumble (sentence arrangement) 20 (E) 25 25
Sentence improvement 22 (E) 19-21 20-22
Sentence completion 5 (E) 5 5
Active-passive 20 (E-M) 20 20
Spelling correction 3 (E) 4-6 4-6
Reading comprehension 30 (M) 30 30
Cloze test 25 (M) 22-23 25
Narration (direct-indirect) 27 (E) 20 20
Idioms/phrases 10 (M) 11-12 10-12
Antonym/synonym 6 (M) 6 5-6
One word substitution 12 (E-M) 9-10 8-12
Error spotting 20 (E-M) 19-21 20-25

 

Descriptive Paper: The paper aims to test you on your writing skills. Therefore “Practice” is the key to your success. Since you have only limited time to frame and write your essay and letter, you need to focus on your writing skills. Read newspapers, articles and political magazines as much as possible. This would not only increase your vocabulary but also helps you bring flow in your writing. You can cover social, economic, political, environmental issues to prepare for your essay writing. Remember that you have only 60 minutes to attempt 2-3 descriptive topics, so do not spend unnecessary time on any of them

Attempt the Essay first as it would require some brainstorming. Attempt the Letter next as it has a set format and you need to only make out the body. This can easily be achieved in a set amount of time. Finally attempt the Precise (if it appears) as it requires on-the-spot thinking and creation of content within a specified number of words

 

Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) and Data Entry Speed Test-

Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) – Computer Proficiency Test is a qualifying test conducted by SSC for the selected post and have different questions of Word Processing, Spread Sheets and generation of slides. Try to be well versed with the use of Word, Excel and PowerPoint. Also, be thorough with the shortcuts that can be used while creating these files.

 

Data Entry Speed Test

DEST comprises only typing test in which students have to make 2000 key depressions in 15 minutes. It is the speed test which can be cleared easily by practice. So, just practice well before you go for the DEST.

Exam pattern & changes in SSC CGL 2018

As the competition is becoming tougher every year, due to the increasing number of aspirants for SSC CGL 2018 exams therefore the recruiting body is making some changes every year in the exam pattern to make exams tougher and to select the candidate, who is best in all aspects.

If we look into the following tables we can observe, how the pattern changed in the previous years and what we can expect to come in an SSC CGL 2018 exam and what not?

 

Quantitative section

First of all, if we analyze the following table for this section, there is not any major change in the set of questions but level of questions is becoming difficult every year. In 2015 and 2016, the questions asked in Tier 1 were very easy but in 2017, the questions were moderate level. So, we can expect that, this time SSC CGL 2018 may be a bit difficult than last year but the pattern can be expected to be same.

 

Reasoning

If we look at the following table, we can simply say that, now SSC CGL has kept the type & pattern of questions same in Reasoning.

 

English

In this section, there has not been many changes in SSC CGL Tier 1 and Tier 2.

Questions asked were of moderate level in SSC CGL Tier 1 and vocabulary was of similar level as asked in previous years.

Exam pattern and changes in SSC CGL Tier 2

Quant

For this section, we can observe that the difficulty level has been increased a lot .The Quant questions asked in SSC CGL 2017 tier 2 saw a drastic change from the previous year’s exams. No questions were repeated and the level of questions of Advanced Maths was quite high. The questions required more than just formulas to solve them. A logical approach towards the questions is what we require to attempt the exam. So the expectation for this year is same new pattern with a bit of increase in difficulty level.

 

English

In the tier 2 exam of 2017, Vocabulary portion had new questions and repetition was not there . Overall, the level of exam was same as previous years.

SSC CGL Exam 2018 Preparation @ IBS

  1. Target Batches will start in IBS Branches.
  2. Classes will be conducted 3 to 4hrs daily.
  3. Test series Online:

Tier I:     25 tests

Tier I:     60 Sectional Tests

Tier II:    20 Tests

  1. Offline Practice Tests Series: Sprint 30 Tests to start from 15th June.

 

The students are required to contact at the respective branches mentioned below for registration for the course or contact at 

9216663810 or our toll free no. 1800 137 3730

 The Batches Starting in IBS branches. Contact the nearest IBS Branch.

 

SSC CGL TIER-I 2018

SSC CGL 2018 SAMPLE PAPER

SSC CGL 2018 PART I-REASONING

  1. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Car : Road : : Ship : ?

(1) Water    (2) Air
(3) Road      (4) Both Air and Water

  1. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

GLOW : FJNU : : PTEL : ?

(1) ORFN    (2) ORDJ       (3) ORJD         (4) OPNF

  1. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

5 : 124 : : 6 : ?

(1) 215        (2) 216           (3) 217            (4) 220

  1. In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

(1) Error : Accurate          (2) Careless : Casual
(3) Strength : Lethargy     (4) Gloomy : Cheerful

  1. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(1) FUGT     (2) KPLO        (3) DWEV        (4) CWDX

  1. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(1) 11 – 120 (2) 17 – 290    (3) 21 – 442     (4) 12 – 145

  1. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Pragmatic                   (2) Protect
(3) Pastel                         (4) Postal
(5) Pebble

(1) 43521    (2) 35412       (3) 34512         (4) 43512

  1. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Q, P, O, N, ?

(1) M          (2) L              (3) O               (4) J

  1. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

6, 9 , 15, 24, 39, 63, ?

(1) 97          (2) 115           (3) 102            (4) 124
QID : 10 – P and Q are brothers. P is the father of S. R is the only son of Q and is married to U. How is U related to S?

(1) Sister-in-law               (2) Mother-in-law
(3) Sister                         (4) Mother

  1. Nine years later, age of B will be equal to the present age of A. Sum of A’s age 3 years later and B’s age 4 years ago is 76. If C is half of the present age of B, then what will be C’s age (in years) after 10 years?

(1) 32          (2) 36             (3) 27              (4) 31

  1. In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Herringbone

(1) Biner     (2) None         (3) Bane          (4) Hinge

  1. In a certain code language, “NIGHT” is written as “ODDGM” and “DARK” is written as “GOYC”. How is “GREEN” written in that code language?

(1) IABPF    (2) MCBNB     (3) OGHVL      (4) FPBAI

  1. In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

4 x 3 – 6 ÷ 2 + 7 = 8

(1) – and +  (2) x and –     (3) ÷ and x       (4) x and +

15 .  If 3 # 4 % 8 = 6 and 9 % 4 # 3 = 12, then

12 % 6 # 24 = ?

(1) 4           (2) 3              (3) 5                (4) 6

  1. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

 

(1) 14          (2) 15             (3) 16              (4) 18

  1. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

 

(1) 32          (2) 34             (3) 37              (4) 40

  1. In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

        Statements:

  1. Some boys are hardworking.
    II. No intelligent are boys.

        Conclusions:

I.Some hardworking are not intelligent.
II.All hardworking are intelligent.
III. Some intelligent are not hardworking.

(1)Only conclusion (I) follows.
(2)Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.
(3)All conclusions follow.
(4)No conclusion follows.

  1. Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘$’ ?

(1) %          (2) &              (3) ^                (4) +

  1. In the given figure, how many people study only 2 subjects ?

(1) 11          (2) 23             (3) 12              (4) 40

  1. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

 

(1)                     (2)
(3)                      (4)

  1. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

 

(1)                    (2)
(3)                    (4)

23 .  A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened ?

 

(1)                      (2)
(3)                    (4)

  1. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

 

(1)                    (2)
(3)                    (4)

  1. A word is represented by only one set of numbers of as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example. ‘C’ can be represented by 10, 34 etc, and D can be represented by 85, 98 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word “STEAL”

 

(1) 01, 13, 04, 76, 66        (2) 14, 31, 40, 95, 59

(3) 22, 42, 21, 69, 97        (4) 43, 24, 33, 57, 58
 

SSC CGL 2018 PART II-QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

  1. How many numbers are there from 300 to 650 which are completely divisible by both 5 and 7?

(1) 8           (2) 9              (3) 10              (4)12

  1. Raman can do a work in 5 days, Jatin can do the same work in 7 days and Sachin can do the same work in 9 days. If they do the same work together and they are paid Rs 2860, then what is the share (in Rs) of Raman?

(1) 1260      (2) 700           (3) 900            (4) 870

  1. If the diameter of a sphere is 14 cm, then what is the surface area (in cm2) of the sphere?

(1) 616        (2) 308           (3) 462            (4) 636

  1. After two successive discounts of 20% and 35%, an article is sold for Rs 50700. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

(1) 92500    (2) 98500       (3) 97500         (4) 94000

  1. Rs 3200 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 8 respectively. What is the difference (in Rs) between the share of B and C?

(1) 400        (2) 600           (3) 800            (4) 900

  1. The average of 5 members of a family is 24 years. If the youngest member is 8 years old, then what was the average age (in years) of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?

(1) 16          (2) 20             (3) 24              (4) 32

  1. If the price of pen decreases by 20%, then a man can buy 10 more pens for Rs 100. What is the new price (in Rs) of each pen?

(1) 1           (2) 2              (3) 4                (4) 5

  1. After deducting 60% from a certain number and then deducting 15% from the remainder, 1428 is left. What was the initial number?

(1) 4200      (2) 3962         (3) 4150          (4) 4300

  1. A train travels 40% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, 140 km away at the same time. On the way the train takes 25 minutes for stopping at the stations. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?

(1) 67          (2) 134.4        (3) 145.9         (4) 160

  1. A certain sum of money triples itself in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years it will be five times?

(1) 5           (2) 8              (3) 10              (4) 15

  1. If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x64+ x121?

(1) 0           (2) 1              (3) 2                (4)–2

  1. If then what is the value of

(1) 2√3        (2) 3√2           (3) 2√2            (4) 3√3

  1. If a + b + c = 27, then what is the value of (a – 7)3+ (b – 9)3 + (c – 11)3 – 3(a – 7)(b – 9)(c – 11)?

(1) 0           (2) 9              (3) 27              (4) 81

  1. If , then what is the value of

(1) √5          (2) √3             (3) √15            (4) 2

  1. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm and each of the equal sides is 5/6 times of the base. What is the area (in cm2) of the triangle ?

(1) 39          (2) 48             (3) 57              (4) 64

  1. If length of each side of a rhombus PQRS is 8 cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then what is the length (in cm) of QS?

(1) 4√5        (2) 6              (3) 8                (4) 12

  1. In the given figure, ABC is triangle. The bisectors of internal ÐB and external ÐC interest at D. If ÐBDC=48°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ÐA ?

 

(1) 48          (2) 96             (3) 100            (4) 114

  1. In the give figure, O is the centre of the circle and , then what is the length (in cm) of AC.CB=BD

 

(1) 14          (2) 15.5          (3) 18.5           (4) 20

  1. What is the simplified value of

(1) tan A     (2) cot A         (3) sin A          (4) cos A

  1. What is the simplified value of

(1) 1 – cos2A                     (2) 2sin2A        (3) sec2A   (4) cosec2A

  1. What is the simplified value of 1 + tan A tan (A/2)?

(1) sin A/2  (2) cos A        (3) sec A          (4) sin A

Direcitons (47-50): The pie chart given below shoes the number of shoes of 5 different in a multi brand store. There are total 1200 shoes.

 

  1. How many shoes are there of Reebok brand?

(1) 230        (2) 276           (3) 286            (4)216

  1. What is the difference in number of shoes of Puma and Vans?

(1) 96          (2) 156           (3) 84              (4)112

  1. The difference between the number of shoes of Reebok and Nike is same as the difference between which of the following two brands?

(1) Puma and Adidas        (2) Reebok and Adidas
(3) Vans and Nike            (4) Nike and Adidas

  1. Puma shoes are how much percent more than the Nike Shoes?

(1) 14.28     (2) 16.66        (3) 25              (4) 21.33

 

SSC CGL 2018 PART III-GENERAL AWARENESS

  1. Which one of the following is a component of Food Security System?

(1) Buffer stock                (2) Minimum support price
(3) Fair price shops          (4) Mid day meals

  1. What is the accepted average Calorie requirement for rural area in India?

(1) 2100      (2) 2200         (3) 2300          (4) 2400

  1. Whose recommendation is mandatory to impeach the President of India from his office before the completion of his/her term?

(1) The Prime Minister

(2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(3) The Chief Justice of India

(4) The two houses of the parliament

  1. How many types of writ are there in the Indian Constitution?

(1) 5           (2) 4              (3) 3                (4) 2

  1. Who has built the Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory) in Chittorgarh?

(1) Maharana Pratap        (2) Rana Kumbha
(3) Rana Sanga                (4) Kunwar Durjan Singh

  1. Who raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”?

(1) Mahatma Gandhi        (2) Subhash Chandra Bose
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak   (4) Lala Lajpat Rai

  1. Which Indian state is the largest in terms of the total area covered ?

(1) Maharashtra               (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Rajasthan                   (4) Tamil Nadu

  1. Which Indian state has the longest Coastline?

(1) Kerala                        (2) Gujarat

(3) Andhra Pradesh          (4) Tamil Nadu

  1. Auxiliary bud develops into which of the following part of the plant?

(1) Fruit      (2) Leaf          (3) Branch       (4) Roots

  1. Xylem helps in transportation of which of the following?

(1) Food                           (2) Water

(3) Nutrients                    (4) Both food and water

  1. Who proposed five kingdom classification?

(1) Ernst Mayr                 (2) R. H. Whittaker
(3) M. W. Beijerinck         (4) D. I. Ivanovsky

  1. What is the other name of Galileo’s law of falling bodies?

(1) Law of motion             (2) Newton’s first law
(3) Newton’s second law    (4) Newton’s third law

  1. Which of the following device is best suited for measuring the temperature inside metallurgical furnaces?

(1) Pyrometer                   (2) Thermocouple

(3) Thermometer              (4)Thermistor

  1. What is the full form of ‘LAN’?
    (1) Line Area Network (2) Linear Area Network
    (3) Local Area Network     (4) Land Area Network
  2. Which acid is released when an Ant bites?

(1) Hydrochloric Acid        (2) Formic Acid
(3) Acetic Acid                  (4) Phosphoric Acid
Correct Answer: Formic Acid

  1. Which among the following is an example of solid sol?

(1) Milk of magnesia         (2) Foam

(3) Coloured gemstones    (4)Rubber

  1. Which metal is responsible for Itai-Itai disease?

(1) Cadmium                    (2) Nickel

(3) Chromium                  (4)Mercury

  1. ‘Vikalp’ is a scheme launched by Indian Railways to help wait-listed passengers. Which of the following is NOT true about this scheme?

(1) Confirmed berths in alternate trains.
(2) No-extra charges will be taken from passengers.
(3) Wait-listed passengers can avail opportunity of travelling in Rajdhani/Shatabdi/Special trains even when booking made is in other mail/express trains.
(4) Vikalp scheme will be initially available for e-tickets only.

  1. Who discovered the Cholera causing germ?

(1) Filippo Pacini              (2) Robert Koch
(3) M. Laveran                 (4) Felix Hoffman

  1. Match the following.

        Player                             Sport

  1. Mithali Raj a. Hockey
  2. Poonam Rani b. 3000 m Steeplechases
  3. Lalita Babar c. Cricket

(1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a                (2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

(3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b                (4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
Correct Answer: 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

  1. ‘Hunar Haat’ an exhibition to exhibit and promote the arts and artisans from minority community was launched at which of the following events?

(1) Pushkar Fair, 2016

(2) IITF, New Delhi, 2016
(3) Suraj Kund Craft Mela, 2017

(4) Kumbh Mela, 2015

  1. Which movie won the award for the best movie at the Oscar Awards 2017?

(1) La La Land                  (2) Arrival
(3) Moonlight                   (4) Manchester by the Sea

  1. Who is the author of the book titled ‘Citizen and Society’?

(1) Pranab Mukherjee       (2) Hamid Ansari
(3) Nandan Nilekani         (4) Satyajit Ray

  1. With which country India has recently signed a MoU for Water Conservation in India?

(1) ​France                        (2) Germany
(3) Israel                          (4) Bangladesh

  1. Which among the following neighbouring country of India is the largest producer of Opium in the World?

(1) Pakistan                                            (2) Afghanistan

(3) Sri Lanka                    (4) Maldives

 

SSC CGL 2018 PART IV-ENGLISH LANGUAGE

  1. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

No sooner did I come out of my home to go to market (1)/ when it started raining heavily (2)/ which drenched me completely. (3)/ No Error (4)
Options:
(1) 1           (2) 2              (3) 3                (4) 4

  1. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Unless you don’t obey (1)/ your elders you (2)/ will not succeed in your life. (3)/ No Error (4)
Options:
(1) 1           (2) 2              (3) 3                (4) 4

  1. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Fourteen kilometres ______ not a short distance, to reach to my office daily.
(1) are        (2) has           (3) have           (4) is

  1. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Good reading ______ the sense of liberal educated mind.
(1) beliefs    (2) leads        (3) reflects       (4) starts

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Frivolous
(1) Captious                                           (2) Wise
(3) Puerile                        (4) Spiritual

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Petrify
(1) Adorn    (2) Calm        (3) Curious      (4) Harden

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Gregarious
(1) Affable   (2) Genial      (3) Introvert     (4) Urbane

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Tremulous
(1) Feeble    (2) Frugal      (3) Stable        (4) Vital

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

The alpha and the omega
(1) Happy and sad

(2) The beginning and the end
(3) The love and the hatred
(4) Truth and dare

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Throw up the sponge
(1) To attack                    (2) To laugh at someone
(3) To surrender               (4) To talk loudly

  1. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

I had (a few) eggs in the fridge, so we need to go to the market to buy them.
(1) a little                        (2) few

(3) little                           (4) No improvement

  1. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

My brother is indifferent (about) whatever I say.
(1) in                               (2) of

(3) to                               (4) No improvement

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A funeral poem
(1) Elegy                          (2) Pandemonium
(3) Parody                        (4) Sonnet

  1. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

One who walks in sleep
(1) Drover                        (2) Fastidious
(3) Numismatist               (4) Somnambulist

  1. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
    (1) Gaurantee (2) Itinerary
    (3) Magnificent                 (4) Writing
  2. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
    (1) Etiquete (2) Exquisite

(3) Restaurant                 (4) Scavenger

  1. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options.

P-But he did not know how to find one at that hour.
Q-It was his first visit to the city and he didn’t know where to go.
R-Mohanlal’s train was late and it reached Kolkata a little after midnight.
S-He thought he would go to a choultry where he would not have to pay rent.
(1) PSQR     (2) QRSP        (3) RQSP         (4) RSQP

  1. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options.

P-And slowly, you reach the pinnacle of self-awareness, experiencing a unity with all life.
Q-If you transform your energy positively, it naturally becomes compassion and love.
R-Once you experientially are a part of everything then nobody needs to teach you morality.
S-Then you can do something to improve the situation, but without anger.
(1) PQRS     (2) QPRS        (3) RQPS         (4) RSPQ

  1. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Ram was singing a beautiful song for his mother.
(1) A beautiful song was being sung by Ram for his mother.
(2) A beautiful song was sang by Ram for his mother.
(3) A beautiful song was sung by Ram for his mother.
(4) A beautiful song was sung for his mother by Ram.

  1. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Priya advised me not to go to school the next day.
(1) “Don’t go to school next day” Priya said to me.
(2) “Don’t go to school tomorrow” Priya said to me.
(3) Priya said, “Will you not go to school tomorrow?”
(4) Priya told me that, “Don’t go to school tomorrow.”
Correct Answer: “Don’t go to school tomorrow” Priya said to me.

  1. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone
(1) affected                       (2) effected
(3) influenced                   (4) measured

  1. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be.
(1) higher    (2) larger       (3) lower          (4) smaller

  1. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level
(1) certain   (2) desired     (3) increased   (4) optimal

  1. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

tends to ______ a dysfunctional result
(1) deduce   (2) introduce  (3) produce      (4) reduce

  1. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Job performance is ______ by a number of factors. Motivation alone does not lead to increased performance. Ability and technology moderates the relationship between motivation and performance. The higher the levels of ability and motivation the ______ the level of performance will be. However, increasing motivation beyond an ______ level tends to ______ a dysfunctional result because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.

because it is ______ by an increased level of anxiety.
(1) abandoned                  (2) accompanied
(3) affiliated                                           (4) amalgamated

 

Answer Keys

Section-I

(REASONING ABILITY)

 

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 2
 
21 22 23 24 25  
1 1 1 2 2

 

 

Section – II

(QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

 

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1
A
46 47 48 49 50  
3 2 1 3 2

 

Section – III

(GENERAL AWARENESS)

 

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 4
 
71 72 73 74 75  
2 3 2 3 2

 

Section – IV

(ENGLISH LANGUAGE)

 

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95
2 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 1 2
C
96 97 98 99 100  
2 1 4 3 2

 

OUR BRANCHES

CHANDIGARH ( Tricity )

CHANDIGARH-8: SCO. 108-109, Top Floor, Sector- 8 C. Phone: 0172-4668810, 92162-78310

CHANDIGARH-34-I: SCO. 13-15, 1st Floor, Sector- 34 A. Phone: 0172-4181045, 93164-88310

CHANDIGARH-34-II: SCO. 134-136, Top Floor, Sector- 34 A. Phone: 0172-4648310, 93160-68310

CHANDIGARH-15: SCO. 72-73, Top Floor, Sector-15 D. Phone: 0172-4668310, 92160-78310

MOHALI: SCO 29, Phase 7, Mohali. Phone: 0172-5032710, 92165-78310

PANCHKULA: SCO. 34, Sector-11, Panchkula. Phone: 92169-68310, 0172-4604633

 

DELHI NCR

NEW-DELHI: 45-46, Near Nirman Vihar Metro Station, Laxmi Nagar, Phone: 011-42147329, 92666-78310

ROHINI:  C-9/25, 2nd Floor, Sector-7, Opp. Metro Piller No 400, Phone: 011-27058535, 99990-59511.

BAWANA:  Near SBI Bank, Above Punjab and Sindh Bank, First floor, Narela Road. Phone: 96509-38533.

FARIDABAD: SCO 96, Above National Insurance, Sector-16, Hudda Market. Phone: 9899834310.

 

PUNJAB

PATIALA: SCF. 109, Chhoti Baradari. Phone: 93169-68310

BATHINDA: GhodeWala chowk, Main Ajit Road, Opp-Street No. 16. Phone: 92169-78310

JALANDHAR: Bedi Paradise, 1st Floor, Opposite Hotel Residency, Near Bus Stand, Jawahar Nagar. Phone: 92167-78310

LUDHIANA: Lower Ground Floor, SEAR Tower, Opp. BSNL Exchange, Bharat Nagar Chowk. Phone: 92167-68310

FATEHGARH SAHIB: Bassi Sirhind Road, Opposite District Complex. Phone: 92162-58310, 92165-55578

BARNALA: Master Mind Complex, New Bus Stand Road. Phone: 92168-68310

KHANNA: SCF 11, 1st Floor, GTB Market. Mobile: 92167-77788

BATALA: SCO 170, 2nd Floor, Phuwara Chowk, Jalandhar Road, Batala. Phone: 9356868310

 

HARYANA

AMBALA CANTT: 126 Staff Road, Opposite GPO. Phone: 0171-2642310, 92156-78310.

AMBALA CITY: DAV College Road, Jagadhari Gate. Phone: 92157-78310.

YAMUNANAGAR: Opp. Samsung Customer Care, Beside Madhu Hotel. Phone: 92156-46079.

KARNAL: MM Building, Opposite Bus Stand. Phone: 92153-78310.

KURUKSHETRA: SCO: 42, Top Floor, Above Allahabad Bank, Sector-13. Phone: 92154-78310.

 

HIMACHAL PRADESH

SHIMLA: Sushant Bhawan, Near Co-operative Bank, Chhota Shimla. Phone: 94187-78310.

PALAMPUR:  Gurudwara Road, Ward No. 7, (Govt. College Road). Phone: 98166-24100.

 

JHARKHAND

KODERMA: 2nd Floor, Ujala Tower, Ranchi Patna Road, Jhumari Telaiya. Phone: 9162162909, 9939725099.

DHANBAD: Laxmi Complex, 2nd Floor, Opp. Induslnd Bank Bankmore. Phone: 9431154940

GIRDIH: 2nd Floor, Shakil Complex, Station Road, Giridih, Jharkhand. 97090-87542, 74809-31106

 

BIHAR

PATNA: Road Number-2, Rajendra Nagar. Phone: 0612-2662212, 7070092379.

ARRAH: Block Road, Old NCC Office, Opp. Dr. Kanhaiya Singh. Phone: 78707-14533

GAYA: Lalit Niwas, Ghughari Tand, Near Bypass. Phone: 854433833

 

UTTAR PRADESH

SAHARANPUR: Madhav Nagar Chowk, Above Telephone Exchange, Near Company Gardan. Phone: 91520-23862

AGRA:  G.D.V.M 11/48/3, Hathras Road Rambagh. Phone: 80062-22207.

FIROZABAD: STG Compound, Behind Gurudwara, Station Road. Phone: 70600-06900

 

RAJASTHAN

SUMERPUR: 1st Floor, Pan Kutir, Near Deputy Office, Sumerpur (Pali). Phone: 9887554666, 9587552666.

SRIGANGANAGAR: 38 H Block Godara College Road, Near Nehru Park. Phone: 95211-68310

 

UTTRAKHAND

DEHRADUN: 2nd Floor, CSM Wested, Chakrata Road, Near IMA Blood Bank, Ballupur. Phone: 88812-00300.

KASHIPUR: Near Hotel Kumaon Plaza, Uttrakhand. Phone: 95689-66660

KOTDWARA: Opp. Kedar Palace, Near Motor Nagar, Devi Road, Kotdwara – Uttrakhand. Phone: 98374-54591, 90457-19131

 

ASSAM

GUWAHATI: Zoo Road, Tiniali, Near Bandhan Bank, Byelane 1, House No. 3. Phone: 84040-71908

 

MAHARASHTRA

NAGPUR: 1st Floor, Paradise Plaza, Above Bank of India, Kadhi Chowk, Kamptee Road, Nagpur. Phone: 96653-76786

PUNE: B-Wing Office No. 57 First Floor K.K Market, Near Shankar Maharaj Math, Satara Road, Pune Phone: 9028950200

VITA: Above State Bank of India, mayani Road, Vita, Maharashtra Phone: 95451-72831, 95183-03968.

 

KARNATAKA

BANGALURU (JP-NAGAR): 1365, 1st Floor, JP Nagar, 1st Phase, Kankapura, Main Road, Bangluru (JP-Nagar). Phone: 7022368310

 

GUJRAT

RAJKOT: 1st Floor, Shubh Complex, Near Nagrik Bank, Hanuman Madhi Chowk, Raya Road, Rajkot, Gujrat Phone: 0281-2451233

 

KERALA

PALAKKAD: Koppam Road, Tharekkad Palakkad, Kerala-678001, 0491-2538818

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